Common misconceptions

Common mistake
Wrong: TPA can be given once a hemorrhagic stroke is ruled out by clinical exam.
Right: Non-contrast CT head must be performed before tPA to exclude hemorrhage, as clinical exam cannot reliably distinguish ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke.
Clinical exam cannot reliably tell you whether a stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic — headache, vomiting, and blood pressure can overlap across subtypes, and many hemorrhagic strokes present exactly like ischemic ones. Non-contrast CT head must come before tPA administration, full stop. Giving tPA into a hemorrhagic stroke dramatically worsens bleeding and is a major source of iatrogenic harm; this is precisely why CT is non-negotiable and not a step you can skip based on clinical gestalt.
Common mistake
Wrong: The tPA window is 4.5 hours from symptom onset for all eligible patients.
Right: The tPA window is 3 hours for most patients and extends to 4.5 hours for select patients (excluding those >80 years, on anticoagulants, with NIHSS >25, or prior stroke + diabetes).
The 4.5-hour window is real but restricted — it's not the default for every patient. The extended window excludes patients over 80 years old, those currently on anticoagulants, those with severe stroke (NIHSS >25), and those with the specific combination of prior stroke plus diabetes. If any of those criteria are present, the safe window is 3 hours. USMLE Step 1 will give you a 78-year-old or a patient on apixaban at 3.5 hours and expect you to recognize they fall outside the extended window.
Common mistake
Wrong: Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin) is the correct secondary prevention for cardioembolic stroke from atrial fibrillation.
Right: Cardioembolic stroke from atrial fibrillation requires anticoagulation (e.g., warfarin or a DOAC), not antiplatelet therapy, for secondary prevention.
Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which is appropriate for thrombotic strokes where platelets are the primary players. But cardioembolic strokes — like those from atrial fibrillation — arise from clots that form via the coagulation cascade in a fibrillating, stagnant atrium. Platelets are not the main driver there, so antiplatelet therapy won't adequately prevent recurrence. Anticoagulation (warfarin targeting INR 2–3, or a DOAC like apixaban) is required. Getting this distinction wrong on the exam costs points and, in clinical reality, leads to preventable recurrent strokes.
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What the exam tests

  1. Know the correct sequence for acute ischemic stroke workup: non-contrast CT head is the critical first step to rule out hemorrhage before any treatment decisions, followed by labs (glucose, coagulation studies) and assessment for tPA eligibility.
  2. Know tPA (alteplase) eligibility precisely: the standard window is 3 hours from symptom onset for most patients; the extended window to 4.5 hours is restricted and excludes patients over 80, those on anticoagulants, those with NIHSS >25, and those with both prior stroke and diabetes. Thrombectomy (mechanical clot removal) extends to 6–24 hours for large vessel occlusion with salvageable penumbra.
  3. Know how secondary prevention strategy depends on stroke mechanism: aspirin (or aspirin + clopidogrel short-term) for non-cardioembolic ischemic stroke, and anticoagulation (warfarin or a DOAC) for cardioembolic stroke due to atrial fibrillation — these are not interchangeable.

Can you avoid these mistakes?

A 67-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden right-sided weakness and aphasia that began 2 hours ago. His blood pressure is 185/100 mmHg and he is alert. What is the single most important next step before deciding on tPA administration, and why?
A 74-year-old woman presents 4 hours after witnessed stroke onset with left facial droop and arm weakness. Her NIHSS is 14. She has no prior stroke, is not on anticoagulants, and has no diabetes. Is she eligible for tPA? What if she were 82 years old instead?
A 61-year-old man is discharged after an ischemic stroke. Workup reveals paroxysmal atrial fibrillation as the likely cause. His neurologist considers aspirin 81 mg daily for secondary prevention. Is this appropriate? What is the correct regimen and why?
You are given a vignette: a patient with sudden-onset worst headache of life and focal deficits arrives 90 minutes after onset. CT head shows no blood. Should tPA be administered immediately? What diagnosis should you reconsider, and what additional workup might change management?

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